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Posted: Sun, 7 Jan 2007 18:21:26 UTC Post subject: Residue theorem and poles of order > 1 |
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem
It doesn't say anything about uniqueness regarding the set , does this mean that if I have a function like 1/(z-1)^2 then the integral around the circle |z| = 2 will equal or ?
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Kungsman Member of the 'S.O.S. Math' Hall of Fame

Joined: 04 Sep 2004 Posts: 3401 Location: Uppsala, Sweden
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Posted: Sun, 7 Jan 2007 19:07:28 UTC Post subject: Re: Residue theorem and poles of order > 1 |
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| Kahsi wrote: | http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem
It doesn't say anything about uniqueness regarding the set , does this mean that if I have a function like 1/(z-1)^2 then the integral around the circle |z| = 2 will equal or ?
Thank you. |
Clearly the residue at z=1 of 1/(z-1)^2 is 0. Hence the integral is 0 too. |
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Posted: Sun, 7 Jan 2007 19:25:37 UTC Post subject: |
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| lol, I took a bad example. But in general, if we have a pole of order greater than 1 will the residue be counted twice in the sum of the residues? |
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Opalg Member of the 'S.O.S. Math' Hall of Fame

Joined: 07 Jan 2006 Posts: 1399 Location: Leeds, UK
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Posted: Sun, 7 Jan 2007 19:39:41 UTC Post subject: |
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| Kahsi wrote: | | lol, I took a bad example. But in general, if we have a pole of order greater than 1 will the residue be counted twice in the sum of the residues? |
No. The formula in the residue theorem stays the same regardless of the order of the pole, and the residue of f at a_k is always the coefficient of in the Laurent series of f about a_k. |
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